Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) Checkride Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• What is provided at 2,500 feet regarding winds aloft?
• What type of equipment is required above FL240 according to IFR regulations?
• Which type of radar system is used for military precision approaches?
• What type of report is issued if there is a significant change in weather conditions?
• What does a green airport symbol on a Low IFR chart typically indicate?
• Where is HIWAS information typically located?
• What is the maximum allowable error for a VOR check on the ground?
• Which of the following is a required inspection frequency for VOR equipment?
• What color indicates the middle marker in an IFR approach?
• What is the primary time duration for Airmets?
• What is the width of Victor Airways?
• What does a Mode C transponder transmit?
• What is the primary purpose of an instrument approach?
• What does "T" refer to in the IFR departure clearance acronym?
• What is the visibility requirement specified in a TAF?
• How long prior to a VOR check is the logbook endorsement valid?
• What is specifically covered in a Terminal Area Forecast (TAF)?
• During a non-precision approach, what must be established before descending from MDA?
• What is the minimum altitude and visibility requirement for a visual approach?
• What does T indicate in relation to MEA change?
• What is the required navigation performance for terminal phase in RNP?
• What is the allowable error for a VOR check in the air?
• What does MVA indicate in IFR operations?
• What is the holding speed for altitudes from 0 to 6000 feet?
• Which of the following is a type of error associated with the Magnetic Compass?
• What is the required cross-country distance for Instrument Rating?
• Which type of de-icing system uses inflatable boots?
• What type of chart provides information about AIRMETs, SIGMETs, convective SIGMETs, and PIREPs?
• Which of the following actions is required to maintain instrument currency after 12 months?
• In VFR Night requirements, which of the following items must be included?
• What approach type utilizes ASR technology?
• How far is enroute mode distance on GPS?
• What is the IFR fuel requirement for a flight?
• What is the purpose of anti-icing systems?
• What signifies a stable atmosphere typically observed in safe flying conditions?
• What is the purpose of assessing “Alternatives” in the risk management process?
• What are the methods used to identify the Freezing Level?
• What is the Release time in IFR operations?
• Which type of approach includes flying at LNAV minimums?
• What does MAA stand for?
• What is the function of a fix in relation to altitude changes?
• In the IFR departure clearance acronym, what does "R" represent?
• Which of the following describes the term "IFR Takeoff Mins" for 1 to 2 engine aircraft?
• What is the relationship between slant range and distance in DME?
• What is the ceiling and visibility requirement for an IFR Alternate when expecting less than 2000' ceiling and 3 statute miles visibility?
• What does "Hold for Release" indicate to a pilot?
• In the event of lost communication, what altitude should be maintained?
• For GPS navigation, how many satellites must be in view to determine a precise location?
• What is the maximum range of a localizer used in an ILS approach?
• What is the minimum number of takeoffs and landings required for a Pilot in Command (PIC) to carry passengers during the day?
• Which of the following is NOT a visual reference required for descent below MDA?
• What happens when WAAS signal is lost?
• What is the minimum altitude for a Non-Precision Approach at an IFR Alternate?
• When dealing with ice on an aircraft, what is the recommended approach speed?
• In risk management, which component refers to identifying external factors that could affect the flight?
• How long before and after sunset must a PIC have performed 3 takeoffs and landings to be current at night?
• What distance is represented by full deflection on GPS for approach mode?
• What is the required instrument currency for an IFR flight after 6 months?
• What color is the outer marker in an ILS implementation?
• When do you need an Instrument Rating according to regulatory standards?
• Victor Airways are classified under which type of airspace?
• What action should be taken when experiencing lost comms under VFR conditions?
• If the ram air is blocked but the drain hole is open, what will the ASI indicate?
• What does the "prop heat" refer to in de-icing systems?
• What is the first item to consider when descending below MDA/DA?
• What is the time limit for a transponder test in aircraft maintenance?
• What downdraft speed is associated with mature thunderstorms?
• For a Precision Approach at an IFR Alternate, what are the minimum requirements for ceiling and visibility?
• Which factor is NOT part of the pilot self-assessment process?
• What does the acronym UNOS represent in aviation navigation?
• What configuration is indicated by the ASI reading if the ram air and drain hole are both blocked?
• What is the maximum time allowed between annual inspections for an aircraft?
• What does MOCA provide assistance for?
• What is the minimum amount of actual or simulated instrument time required for an Instrument Rating?
• What type of approach does ASR refer to?
• Which factor is NOT required for thunderstorm formation?
• What should the Ball indicate in the Turn Coordinator during an Instrument Check when moving?
• Which document is NOT required for flight as a pilot?
• What is included in the preflight action related to weather conditions?
• What is the VOR distance off course for each dot on a VOR indicator?
• When is instrument time logged for a pilot?
• What does the Turn Indicator primarily measure?
• What does the completion of a GPS approach require?
• Which requirement is associated with the static and altimeter check?
• What is the width of the localizer signal in degrees?
• What does the term 'fix' refer to in aviation?
• During a circle to land approach, what should you do until base turn?
• Which of the following is NOT a limitation of VOR systems?
• At what altitude is the VOR service volume 100 nautical miles valid?
• What does MDA stand for in the context of non-precision approaches?
• What happens when there are 5 satellites visible regarding RAIM?
• Which of the following statements about MEAs is true?
• How long is the duration of a Low IFR Chart?
• What is the purpose of the Minimum Crossing Altitude (MCA)?
• What does "Vertical guidance" in WAAS allow for?
• Which is a requirement for a pilot to have the ability to read, speak, write, and understand English?
• What is the purpose of MEA?
• What is the frequency of GPS database updates?
• What is a requirement when climbing to a new MEA?
• Which of the following actions is part of the risk management 'Perform' process?
• What does a contact approach require regarding cloud clearance?
• What does RNP stand for?
• Which type of approach is associated with PAR?
• When flying under IFR, what does MCA stand for?
• What is the minimum visibility required for a visual approach?
• What do ice pellets typically indicate?
• What is indicated by a Low IFR Chart for an airport?
• What is the issuance frequency of Convective Sigmets?
• What is the IFR Takeoff minimum visibility for aircraft with more than 2 engines?
• Which order should be followed for lost communications regarding course?
• What is the minimum climb rate required for Takeoff Obstruction Clearance?
• What does the term "Reverse Sensing" in VOR systems refer to?
• What is the approach phase RNP requirement?
• What is the significance of MRA?
• What does the 'D' in DEPS stand for in the context of a VOR check log?
• How frequently is the TAF updated?
• Which component is used to determine the vertical guidance in an ILS approach?
• What does the acronym "ATOMATO FLAMES" refer to in IFR required equipment?
• What is the time frame for a flight review requiring 1 hour of ground and 1 hour of flight?
• In IFR operations, what should a pilot do if they are unsure about their minimum authorized altitude?
• What type of weather phenomenon is conveyed through SIGMETs?
• Which method is used primarily with heated wings to control ice formation?
• Which marking indicates the touchdown zone for an approaching aircraft?
• What type of icing does "clear ice" refer to?
• What does AIRMET stand for?
• What is a Visual Descent Point associated with?
• What is true about winds aloft at 1,500 feet?
• What is the minimum altitude to be flown above the highest obstacle in a quirky area?
• What does ALS stand for in aviation?
• Which instrument is included in the IFR required equipment categorized under "ATOMATO FLAMES"?
• What is the typical approach for passing thunderstorms during flight?
• What defines the principle of rigidity in space for the Attitude Indicator?
• During which stage of a thunderstorm is it most dangerous?
• Which of the following is NOT part of the equipment required for VFR Day?
• Which of the following is not a stage of a thunderstorm?
• If you lose WAAS (Wide Area Augmentation System) capability during a GPS approach, what should you do?
• What does RAIM stand for in the context of GPS?
• What is the primary role of carb heat in de-icing procedures?
• In relation to the Heading Indicator, what is meant by rigidity in space?
• What altitude should a pilot maintain while flying before reaching a fix?
• What is the meaning of MEA in the context of IFR navigation?
• What is the recommended distance to maintain from a thunderstorm?
• When flying and experiencing lost communications, when can you safely land at an airport?
• What should pilots do when the ALS is INOP?
• For an Instrument Check while stationary, what is the acceptable range for the Altimeter?
• What contributes to making the air unstable?
• What does DA stand for in IFR procedures?
• Upon reaching the fix for an MCA, what should a pilot do?
• What type of ice consists of small, opaque droplets?
• What is the maximum updraft speed recorded in a mature thunderstorm?
• According to Part 61 regulations, what is the IFR Takeoff minimum for a pilot?
• What is meant by Clearance Void Time in aviation communication?
• How many hours of flight training are required with a Certified Flight Instructor Instrument (CFII) for an Instrument Rating?
• Which of the following denotes a hazardous condition for smaller aircraft under Airmets?
• What does WAAS stand for?
• What is the safest side to pass on when encountering a thunderstorm?
• What is a defining characteristic of Sigmets?
• What is the frequency at which METAR reports are typically generated?
• What must a pilot do if they do not take off by the clearance void time?
• What method is used to verify RAIM?
• What is commonly referred to as the squall line in relation to thunderstorms?
• What kind of system is used with weeping wings?
• Which of the following is a function of RAIM?
• Which mandatory action must be taken regarding inoperative equipment listed in the MEL?
• Which of the following documents is NOT required for flight?
• What does the "C" in the IFR departure clearance acronym "CRAF" stand for?
• How should a pilot react when approaching a blue airport?
• How long can you fly over an inspection before needing a special flight permit?
• What altitude is required for IFR operations in mountainous areas?
• Which of the following is a preflight action that must be performed before flight?
• What action is not advised when you have lost communications and are approaching a fix?
• What is the significance of the decision altitude during a precision approach?
• What should you do if cleared to a fix and communications are lost?
• What element of the IFR departure clearance is indicated by "F"?
• Which of the following is an example of a source of power requirement for VFR Night?
• Which condition does not trigger a Sigmet?
• What is required to transition to a new MEA safely?
• At what altitude is the middle marker usually located from the runway?
• When assessing consequences in risk management, what should be the primary focus?
• When operating under IFR in non-mountainous areas, what is the required altitude above the highest obstacle?
• What does OROCA provide?
• At what point should a pilot begin to climb to the new MEA?
• At what altitude do Low IFR charts cover from the surface up to?
• What should pilots ensure regarding altitude when approaching a fix?
• What do runway markings indicate in the context of descent procedures?
• What does ALS refer to in the context of approach lights?
• What must a pilot do with inoperative equipment before flight?
• What is the VOR service volume for high altitude use from 14,500 to 60,000 feet?
• What visibility requirement must be met for descending below MDA?
• Which of the following is NOT a requirement to obtain an Instrument Rating?
• What is the holding speed for altitudes from 6001 to 14000 feet?
• When must a pilot hold an Instrument Rating according to requirements for special VFR at night?
• When can you descend during an instrument approach?
• Which conditions are necessary for thunderstorms to develop?
• What is the definition of "full scale deflection" in terms of VOR?
• What do pilots need to do upon reaching the minimum crossing altitude over a fix?
• What is the normal range of a glideslope in an ILS approach?
• What happens to the ASI if both the ram air and the drain hole are blocked?
• What is the range of a VOR Terminal service volume?
• What is required for a visual approach regarding ATC or pilot requests?
• In the IFR departure clearance acronym, what does "A" signify?
• Which of the following is an example of inoperative equipment that requires specific actions?
• What is a key benefit of WAAS?
• What is the minimum amount of cross-country time required for the Instrument Rating?
• What does the term "Blue Airport" signify in aviation?
• What atmospheric condition requires an Instrument Rating when departing on a commercial flight?
• What de-icing method is a component of the "anti-icing warrior" systems?
• What is the RNP requirement for enroute phase?
• What is a false glide slope characterized by?